I would like some advice (this is my first realestate transaction) on a offer to purchase clause that has been changed by the previous, or current until I sign this, homeowner that he will not be providing a real property report with the lane title. I do not have a lawyer honestly the place is $13,000 over my budget and I found a way to come up with that but I simply cannot afford a lawyer (I know it’ll pay off in the long run but I have no funds to pay for a lawyer). Should I be worried that he is trying to hide something by not disclosing this report? Is there anyone out there that can look at this contract & tell me if I should proceed? I’m nervous that I’m making a huge mistake but there is nothing else in my area, in my price range & I need quick possession for feb1st so I need to act quick. Anyone willing to give free advice?
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source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/1974sjl/no_real_property_report_on_offer_to_purchase/
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