I realize I will likely have to contact a real estate attorney but also hoping to hear insights and experiences from others!
I have a house in NC that I bought by myself in 2009, and paid off, in full, in 2022. I got married in 2023. My spouse and I have not lived in the house as our "marital residence". We have maintained separate residences even after we got married. (That a separate topic!).
I am now selling this house. Realtors have told us that my husband has to sign the deed at time of transfer but I am not convinced since the house has not been our marital residence. The realtors like to use the phrase "one to buy; two to sell", which seems like a broad-stroke statement which is not applicable under all circumstances. And of course, the realtors don’t realize the details of my specific circumstances:
- I purchased and paid for the house in full prior to marriage
- Only my name is on the deed
- And most importantly, we have never lived in the house as a marital residence
Under these conditions, is my husband legally required to sign the deed? I do not think so since we have not lived there as a marital residence. Also, if I simply have him sign the deed for the sake of simplicity, does it imply that he has a financial interest in my proceeds from the sale?
Thanks in advance for any help!
[link] [comments]
source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/1ipbjuo/north_carolina_one_to_buy_two_to_sell/
Comments
Post a Comment