Skip to main content

Questions about as is residential contract

Hello,

Recently I inherited a home from my father and decided to put it on the market. After 4 months and many showings I finally got an offer. However, the offer is contingent upon the buyer selling her current house.

I am not experienced in real estate and want a second opinion on the matter. It seems odd to me that the contract would be set up this way. It’s my understanding my property will appear as ‘pending’ on sites like Zillow and I will be unable to show it to other potential homebuyers while it is pending.

What are your thoughts on contracts like this? Any help would be great appreciated!

submitted by /u/Competitive-Tip-3560
[link] [comments]

source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/l9qkle/questions_about_as_is_residential_contract/

Comments

Popular posts from this blog

North Carolina – “One to Buy; Two to Sell”

I realize I will likely have to contact a real estate attorney but also hoping to hear insights and experiences from others! I have a house in NC that I bought by myself in 2009, and paid off, in full, in 2022. I got married in 2023. My spouse and I have not lived in the house as our "marital residence". We have maintained separate residences even after we got married. (That a separate topic!). I am now selling this house. Realtors have told us that my husband has to sign the deed at time of transfer but I am not convinced since the house has not been our marital residence. The realtors like to use the phrase "one to buy; two to sell", which seems like a broad-stroke statement which is not applicable under all circumstances. And of course, the realtors don’t realize the details of my specific circumstances: I purchased and paid for the house in full prior to marriage Only my name is on the deed And most importantly, we have never lived in the house as a marit...

Question With Tricon "Pending ID".....

My wife and i, along with 2 other peopl applied to rent a house, and our application says "Approved, Pending ID". Anyone else know what that means? Do we pretty much have the place or are we missing something? submitted by /u/Itskrueger [link] [comments] source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/1orixqj/question_with_tricon_pending_id/

Aren't comps/CMAs useless with buyer credits at close happening now?

I'm looking into buying a new construction townhouse in my HCOL US city. I'm seeing builders offering interest rate buydowns worth $20k-$60k on $800k homes (rather than just lowering prices) in order to keep their comps high for their other units, now that buyer demand has been declining. I asked my agent about these, and he said these buydowns aren't even the full story: buyers can write all kinds of other credits into an offer, like their closing costs, prepaid sewer fees, etc. Apparently cash buyers can just write in a "buyer credit at close" for any amount in their offer. So a new townhouse that appeared to sell for $800k in the MLS might have actually been a cash offer with a $100k+ buyer credit at close, meaning the buyer only spent $700k or less in total, but to the rest of the world they can only see the $800k! So that made me realize I can't trust comps/CMAs for other new construction townhouses. The sales prices could be way lower than they appear...