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Help with math.

Married 11 years, Texas is the state, impending divorce, house bought 2 years ago for 170k, worth 350k now. He put 13k down and pays the mortgage. He’s put 30k into repairs and I have put in 10k, plus I pay some bills. He’s wanting to move to OK and I need to stay in Texas. He makes 90k with a big 401k, I used my 401k on a failed spinal surgery before marriage.

I have some savings. Half of it is inheritance, half earnings.

I’m disabled and will only work another year. My job I make 70k-90k now, but before, average 60k.

Want to buy a little something in the town I’m in for 140k or so. Clearly want to buy whilst unmarried. Unless I use my separate property to buy.

Oh, his down payment and repairs were his separate property from a house he owned before marriage.

Sorry, a bit complicated.

Want out of this nightmare.

submitted by /u/maryhartman000
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source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/wuukju/help_with_math/
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