I know this could go either way but what do you think? Here's the deal, seller bought her father's home 4 months ago. Now her and the husband are getting divorced (social media seems to confirm this) and are selling. It's in a great area. Cheapest home in the neighborhood. Large property. No HOA. House itself isn't perfect but its only about 20 years old and most at this price point in the area are in worse shape and like 70 years old.
So anyway, I have an accepted offer for under ask and only about 2% more than what they bought it for. Does that sound reasonable? Given closing costs and such, I can't believe they'd be making any money on this unless dad accepted less money than what's reported on the deed. My pessimism was making me think this might give them plausible deniability on the disclosure form but it looks like they didn't even answer anything "unknown." And the inspection didn't turn up anything major but radon, which they're going to give us a credit for.
This is my first home purchase and it makes it hard not thinking about all the ways this could go wrong...even like this where it's very likely a green flag.
[link] [comments]
source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/1mlp0j5/seller_bought_from_father_a_few_months_ago_red/
Comments
Post a Comment