I'm looking for guidance on this - any help is greatly appreciated.
My mother-in-law remarried (2nd time) in 2019 to a gentleman who had his primary residence in New Jersey. At the time of the marriage, my mother in law had a condo in PA and the gentleman had a house in New Jersey that he received as a result of this first marriage ending. He lived there for 10+ year before meeting my MIL and has had his daughter living with him during the time the first marriage ended until present day.
They get married in 2019 and my MIL sells her condo in PA to move to NJ with him into a NEW house that they purchase 50/50. Once they move in together in the NEW house, the gentleman's previous house in NJ is "rented" to his daughter where she and her family currently live.
My MIL's marriage to this gentleman is now pretty much over and they are in the process of divorcing. He has decided that he wants to keep the NEW home they both purchased and is willingly to buy her out of the NEW house for 50% of the current appraised value.
The problem is that this gentleman apparently added my MIL to the deed on his original (1st marriage) home without her knowing it. He is now in the process of selling the original home and is claiming that my MIL owes him just under $20k to cover the taxes of the sale of the gentleman's original home. He's claiming he's using a one-time tax exemption on his share of the tax bill that my MIL used when she sold her condo in 2020. So he's saying she's SOL.
She has never lived in the original (1st marriage) house and had no idea she was added to the deed.
Thoughts on next steps? Is this legal?
[link] [comments]
source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/11vj0ot/mil_getting_stuck_with_tax_till_after_unknowingly/
Comments
Post a Comment