I know this is more of a real estate attorney question but I'm hoping someone here might know the answer because I'm seeing a lot of different stuff when searching online.
So I have a house im currently selling that I have owned since before my wife and I met. She also has a house she purchased before we met. We just recently bought a house together so we are selling both of our previous houses. My old house is in my name and hers is in her name. The question is, what are we looking at tax wise when both houses sell? We have been married for 4 years and stayed at her house since that time. So what im thinking is we may have to pay on my house but not hers since that was our primary residence. Does that sound accurate? We live in USA (Alabama)
[link] [comments]
source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/zp0q8k/paying_tax_on_home_sale/
Comments
Post a Comment