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Can properties without A/C be competitive if most similar sized properties in the area have A/C?

I grew up in a home without A/C in an area where most similarly sized homes had A/C. We got a pretty good deal renting the house I grew up in, but I doubt the lack of A/C made much of a difference in the rental price. Prices simply weren’t as insane as they have become in recent years. It was in a high demand, low availability area (which pretty much encapsulates most of California, especially now). But I know based on my own research as well as living in some other houses in the area that A/C is a standard.

I don’t know how much the house I grew up in ended up being rented out for after we moved out. The owners could’ve decided to sell (and they would’ve gotten a pretty penny at that).

But my question is whether a house without A/C in a region where most houses have A/C requires a lower price than similar-sized houses that have that amenity. I highly doubt any of the houses in my direct culdesac had A/C, so it’s not like the next house over has A/C but you’re charging the same price. But there are many similar-sized houses within a <5 mile radius in neighborhoods just as nice as the one I grew up in where all the houses have A/C. I would assume that those houses go for more (rent or sale) than the house I grew up in. All things equal, wouldn’t lack of A/C be a downside?

submitted by /u/Danielnrg
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source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/z521ij/can_properties_without_ac_be_competitive_if_most/
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