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Why do lenders approve mortgages ending up with buyers as "house poor?"

Just wondering why you hear so much about people being house poor. Don't underwriters use the 28/36 principle in order to make sure mortgage applicants can afford their home?

I can imagine there's scenarios where buyers suddenly have a financial situation (losing a job or hours) and that puts them in a tight spot with housing costs. However I've heard of people actually buying houses and immediately ending up in this situation of more than 28% of their income going towards their mortgage.

Is there some other situation why this happens? Are buyers actually approved for mortgages despite this? Really curious because we applied for a mortgage, and I think our housing costs will be tight (a little above 28%). Thanks!

submitted by /u/jedamitchell
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source https://www.reddit.com/r/RealEstate/comments/jlx754/why_do_lenders_approve_mortgages_ending_up_with/
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